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Why does the Greek, in 1 John 3:9, say that those born of God are not able to miss the mark, when it states in Romans 3:23 that all have missed the mark and fallen short of God's glory?"



    
    

Clarify Share Report Asked September 25 2014 Me at sawdust fest 2b Craig Mcelheny Supporter

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Me at sawdust fest 2b Craig Mcelheny

James,
You said:
“No where in the bible does it say that we become sinless. But when God looks at us He sees Jesus who paid for all our sin and declares us righteous. Without the spirit of God through the new birth there is no salvation. We still sin but the Spirit of God that lives in us can not sin. Compared to all other scripture it is the only way I can understand First John 3:9.”

Well, 1 John 3:9 is that place that says WE become sinless, not the Holy Spirit. I presented my argument to you that the Holy Spirit does not fit the syntax of 1 John 3:9. Can you see that being ‘born again’ is a process that is completed/perfected AT the resurrection? I showed you that the context is the Lord’s appearing (1 John 2:28 & 1 John 3:2), and it seems your arguments about salvation are unrelated.

Of course we are saved by grace and cannot earn our salvation through good deeds. As I said before, this is not related to the question. However, since you brought it up, I gave you Scripture (Phil. 3:4-19) where Paul unequivocally laments, sheds tears (Phil. 3:18), at the loss of salvation for his brothers (those who are mature (Phil. 3:15), and want to press on towards the goal for the prize of the upward call (Phil. 3:14). You see, it is the resurrection that Paul is referring to. It is his goal, as it is ours.

You haven't said anything regarding either the error in believing the Holy Spirit is the answer to 1 John 3:9, nor Paul’s rebuttal of eternal security. Please respond to these two issues.

March 04 2017 Report

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