Tim Maas Supporter Retired Quality Assurance Specialist with the U.S. Army

The wording cited in the question is from the King James translation of the original Hebrew or Greek text. The same word translated as "acceptable" in this verse is rendered in other verses in the King James translation through such words as "delight", "desire", "favor", "pleasure", and "will". Various other English translations of this verse (as found at http://www.biblehub.com) render the original text as follows:

"the year when the LORD will show His favor";
"the year of the LORD's good will";
"the favorable year of the LORD";
"the year of the LORD's good pleasure".

In each case, the verse was prophesying a future day when God would show good will to His people (while at the same time bringing God's final promised vengeance on Satan in fulfillment of Genesis 3:15), specifically by the sending of the promised Messiah as the One who would deal for all time with the separation between humanity and God caused by sin.

As Jesus indicated when He quoted this verse, this prophecy was being fulfilled by His ministry and sinless life, which would culminate in His atoning death and resurrection.

July 23 2016 • 0 responses • Vote Up • Share • Report