Why does KJV use 'Jesus' instead of 'Joshua' in Acts 7:45 and Hebrews 4:8?
Why did the translators choose to use Jesus' name? The context refers to Joshua.
Hebrews 4:8
ESV - 8 For if Joshua had given them rest, God would not have spoken of another day later on.
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Asked November 27 2013
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Ron Godinez
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