← Back
Colin Wong
Supporter
Why does KJV use 'Jesus' instead of 'Joshua' in Acts 7:45 and Hebrews 4:8?
Why did the translators choose to use Jesus' name? The context refers to Joshua.
Hebrews 4:8
ESV - 8 For if Joshua had given them rest, God would not have spoken of another day later on.
Clarify
•
Share
•
Report
•
Asked November 27 2013
•
Ron Godinez
Supporter
Community answers are sorted based on votes. The higher the vote, the further up an answer is.
Colin Wong
Supporter
The context of this scripture refers to Joshua. The NKJV, NIV, NASB, RSV, ESV, NLT and others translate it to "Joshua". The KJV (and perhaps other older translations) keep it as "Jesus". This inconsistency lies in the fact that the name "Joshua" in Hebrew is the same name as "Jesus" in Greek. It's like "John" in English is "Juan" in Spanish or "Ioannes" in Latin, or "Iōánnēs" in Greek, which is also "Yôḥanan" in Hebrew, which means "Graced by Yahweh". Joshua -> Hebrew -> Yahowshuwa (Strongs 3091) Jesus -> Greek -> Iesous (Strongs 2424) When the KJV translators interpreted the New Testament manuscripts (written in Greek), they saw "Iesous", and translated it to Jesus instead of Joshua, even though the context was referring to a different person (but of the same name). In modern translations, we use "Joshua" in the Old Testament in keeping with the Hebrew tradition, and "Jesus" in the New Testament in keeping with the Greek tradition.
Add your Answer
All answers are REVIEWED and MODERATED.
Please ensure your answer MEETS all our guidelines.
A good answer provides new insight and perspective. Here are guidelines to help facilitate a meaningful learning experience for everyone.
- Adhere to the eBible Statement of Faith.
- Your answer should be complete and stand-alone.
- Include supporting arguments, and scripture references if possible. Seek to answer the "why".
- Adhere to a proper tone and spirit of love and understanding.
- For more info see The Complete Guide to eBible